COMPTIA 220-1201 RELIABLE EXAM SIMULATOR | 220-1201 RELIABLE DUMPS PPT

CompTIA 220-1201 Reliable Exam Simulator | 220-1201 Reliable Dumps Ppt

CompTIA 220-1201 Reliable Exam Simulator | 220-1201 Reliable Dumps Ppt

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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Sample Questions (Q13-Q18):

NEW QUESTION # 13
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that has random BSOD alerts and intermittently freezes during normal use. Performance degrades as the day goes on. No new software or hardware changes have been implemented. Freezing occurs under performance-intensive operations. Which of the following hardware components is most likely at fault?

  • A. RAM module
  • B. HDD
  • C. Video card
  • D. TPM

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Random BSODs (Blue Screen of Death), intermittent freezing, and degraded performance under load are common symptoms of failing or faulty RAM (Random Access Memory). Here's the reasoning:
RAM Module (Correct Answer):
Faulty or failing RAM can cause random BSODs due to memory errors when the system attempts to read or write to corrupted memory locations.
Intermittent freezing, especially under performance-intensive operations, can occur because the CPU relies heavily on RAM for active processing tasks.
Over time, heat generated during usage can exacerbate RAM instability, leading to progressively worse performance throughout the day.
Solution: The technician should run a memory diagnostic tool, such as Windows Memory Diagnostic or MemTest86, to confirm if the RAM is at fault.
Incorrect Options:
A: Video Card: A faulty video card can cause graphical glitches, screen artifacts, or crashes, but it is unlikely to cause system-wide performance degradation and random freezing under normal operations unless the issue is specific to GPU-intensive tasks (e.g., gaming or video rendering).
B: HDD: A failing hard drive can cause system slowdowns and freezing, but it typically produces other symptoms such as read/write errors, boot failures, or clicking sounds. HDD issues do not usually cause BSODs unless critical system files are corrupted.
D: TPM (Trusted Platform Module): A TPM is a hardware-based security module used for encryption and secure authentication. It does not affect performance or cause BSODs or freezing under normal operation.
Key Takeaway:
The symptoms described (random BSODs, intermittent freezing, and degraded performance under load) are most likely caused by faulty or failing RAM. Memory diagnostic tools should be used to confirm the issue.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 5.2 - Troubleshooting problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPUs, and power.


NEW QUESTION # 14
While reviewing options in the BIOS/UEFI settings page to fix a laptop issue, a support technician notices an option to clear existing TPM keys. Which of the following would most likely happen if the TPM is cleared?

  • A. The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform
  • B. Encrypted hard drives would probably not be accessible.
  • C. All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots.
  • D. The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security feature used to store cryptographic keys, such as those used for encryption, authentication, or device identification. It plays a critical role in ensuring secure operations for encrypted drives, BitLocker, and secure boot processes. Clearing TPM keys involves wiping all stored cryptographic data, which can lead to several consequences depending on what the TPM was being used for. Let's break it down:
A:Encrypted hard drives would probably not be accessible.
Encrypted hard drives, such as those secured with BitLocker encryption, rely on the cryptographic keys stored in the TPM to unlock data.
Clearing the TPM will erase these keys, making it impossible for the encrypted drive to decrypt its contents unless a recovery key (separate from the TPM) is available. Without this recovery key, the data will likely become inaccessible.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference: This falls under Objective 3.5, which covers understanding BIOS/UEFI configurations, TPM functions, and securing devices.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B:All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots.
Clearing the TPM does not erase security certificates stored in the operating system or other areas.
Certificates are generally managed by the OS or specific applications, not the TPM.Clearing the TPM only affects cryptographic keys and data stored in the TPM chip, so this is incorrect.
C:The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform.
Mobile Device Management (MDM) enrollment typically does not rely on the TPM. While certain enterprise security configurations may involve the TPM, clearing it does not inherently trigger MDM reenrollment unless specifically tied to the MDM configuration.
D:The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client.
While domain registrations may sometimes use TPM for authentication or secure operations, clearing the TPM alone does not require re-registering the device to the domain. The domain registration and authentication process rely more on system-level credentials than the TPM itself.
Practical Example:
A user enables BitLocker on their laptop, which relies on the TPM to store the encryption key. Later, if they clear the TPM via BIOS/UEFI without saving the BitLocker recovery key separately, they will not be able to unlock the hard drive, leading to data loss unless the recovery key is available. This is a common issue when technicians or users inadvertently clear the TPM without understanding its role in encryption.
CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:
Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, install and configure laptop hardware and components, including UEFI/BIOS security settings (TPM, secure boot, etc.).
This question tests understanding of TPM functionality, encryption technologies, and secure device configurations.


NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following port numbers are associated with email traffic? (Select two).

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3
  • E. 4
  • F. 5

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
To answer this question, we need to identify the port numbers associated with email protocols used in client- server communication.
Port 25 (SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol):
This port is primarily used for sending emails between mail servers and from mail clients to mail servers (sending outbound mail).
SMTP is an essential protocol for email traffic.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 2.5 - Explain basic wired and wireless networking concepts, including ports and protocols.
Port 110 (POP3 - Post Office Protocol v3):
POP3 is used for retrieving emails from a mail server. It is commonly used for downloading email messages to a local client, after which the messages are deleted from the server.
While not as commonly used today (due to IMAP being preferred), POP3 is still a recognized email protocol, and its association with port 110 makes it a valid answer.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 2.5 - Explain basic wired and wireless networking concepts, including ports and protocols.
Incorrect Options:
A: Port 23: This is the Telnet protocol used for remote terminal access. It is not related to email traffic.
C: Port 67: This port is associated with the DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server-to-client communications. It is unrelated to email.
E: Port 137: This port is part of NetBIOS, used for name resolution in legacy Windows environments. It is not relevant to email traffic.
F: Port 443: This port is used for HTTPS (secure web traffic) and is unrelated to email protocols.
Key Takeaway:The two correct port numbers associated with email traffic are B. 25 (SMTP) for sending emails and D. 110 (POP3) for retrieving emails.


NEW QUESTION # 16
A technician is experimenting with network configurations and has connected two laptops to an unmanaged switch. The technician configured one of the laptops with a static IP address of 192.168.1.1 and the other with a static IP address of 192.168.2.2. The laptops are not communicating with each other. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this issue?

  • A. The laptops do not have access to a router.
  • B. PoE interferes with intersubnet communication.
  • C. The technician needs to use a hub instead of a switch.
  • D. The wireless NICs are malfunctioning.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following provides electricity to devices through network cables?

  • A. Patch panel
  • B. PoE switch
  • C. Access point
  • D. Edge router

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A PoE (Power over Ethernet) switch transmits both data and electrical power over Ethernet cables to devices like wireless access points or VoIP phones. This is especially useful in areas where separate power sources are not available.
#Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter - Chapter 5, pages 319-321.


NEW QUESTION # 18
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